Cert Practice Exam (ICND1) Answers

01. Which feature on a Cisco router permits the forwarding of traffic for which there is no specific route?

gateway of last resort

02. An organization is assigned an IPv6 address block of 2001:db8:0:ca00::/56. How many subnets can be created without using bits in the interface ID space?


03. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Which code is displayed on the web browser?It works!

04. Data is being sent from a source PC to a destination server. Which three statements correctly describe the function of TCP or UDP in this situation? (Choose three.)

1. The UDP destination port number identifies the application or service on the server which will handle the data.

2. UDP segments are encapsulated within IP packets for transport across the network.

3. The source port field identifies the running application or service that will handle data returning to the PC.

05. What are two actions performed by a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)

1. using the source MAC addresses of frames to build and maintain a MAC address table

2. utilizing the MAC address table to forward frames via the destination MAC address

06.A network administrator is issuing the login block-for 180 attempts 2 within 30 command on a router. Which threat is the network administrator trying to prevent?

a user who is trying to guess a password to access the router

07. How will a router handle static routing differently if Cisco Express Forwarding is disabled?

Ethernet multiaccess interfaces will require fully specified static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies.

08. A network administrator is designing an IPv4 addressing scheme and requires these subnets.

1 subnet of 100 hosts
2 subnets of 80 hosts
2 subnets of 30 hosts
4 subnets of 20 hosts

Which combination of subnets and masks will provide the best addressing plan for these requirements?

3 subnets of 126 hosts with a mask
6 subnets of 30 hosts with a mask

09. Match the description to the various trunking modes for Cisco 2960 Catalyst switches. Not all options are used.

A. The interface becomes a nontrunk interface regardless of whether the neighboring interface is a trunk interface.

B. The interface becomes a trunk interface if the neighboring interface is set to trunk or desirable mode.

C. The interface becomes a trunk interface even if the neighboring interface is not a trunk interface.1. switchport nonegotiate

2. switchport mode trunk - C

3. switchport mode dynamic desirable

4. switchport mode dynamic auto - B

5. switchport mode access - A

10. How many /30 subnets can be created from one /27 subnet?


11. Which layer of the OSI model handles the process of identifying and discarding damaged frames?

data link

12. Refer to the exhibit. Which password will the administrator need to use on this device to enter privileged EXEC mode?


13. In which memory location are the VLAN configurations of normal range VLANs stored on a Catalyst switch?


14. A user calls the help desk to report that a Windows XP workstation is unable to connect to the network after startup and that a popup window says "This connection has limited or no connectivity." The technician asks the user to issue the ipconfig /all command. The user reports the IP address is with subnet mask of and nothing is displayed for the DNS server IP address. What is the cause of the problem?

The workstation is unable to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server.

15. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?

The DHCP server function of the router will not issue the addresses from through inclusive.

16. Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration that is shown in the exhibit is applied to the SVI, the switch fails to respond to Telnet attempts from a host in the same subnet. What is the cause of the problem?

The interface is administratively down.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Match the packets with their destination IP address to the exiting interfaces on the router. (Not all targets are used.)

A. Packets with a destination of

B. Packets with a destination of

C. Packets with a destination of

D. Packets with a destination of

E. Packets with a destination of FastEthernet0/0 - E

2. FastEthernet0/1 - C

3. FastEthernet1/0 - B

4. FastEthernet1/1 - A

5. Serial0/0/0 - D

6. The packet is dropped.

18. A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick model to configure a switch and a router for inter-VLAN routing. What configuration should be made on the switch port that connects to the router?

Configure the port as an 802.1q trunk port.

19. Which three statements accurately describe duplex and speed settings on Cisco 2960 switches? (Choose three.)

1. When the speed is set to 1000 Mb/s, the switch ports will operate in full-duplex mode.

2. The duplex and speed settings of each switch port can be manually configured.

3. An autonegotiation failure can result in connectivity issues.

20. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R2 for PAT. Why is the configuration incorrect?

NAT-POOL2 is bound to the wrong ACL.

21. Which address type is not supported in IPv6?


22. Which device connects a local LAN to a geographically separate network?


23. What is the purpose of the SVI on a Cisco switch?

The SVI provides a virtual interface for remote access to the switch.

24. Refer to the exhibit. Interfaces Fa0/5, Fa0/7, and Fa0/9 are the only connected ports on the switch CiscoSwitch. All other ports are unused. Which security best practice did the administrator forget to configure?​

Configure all unused ports to a 'black-hole' VLAN that is not used for anything on the network.​

25. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are connected via a serial link. One router is configured as the NTP master, and the other is an NTP client. Which two pieces of information can be obtained from the partial output of the show ntp associations detail command on R2? (Choose two.)

1. Router R1 is the master, and R2 is the client.

2. The IP address of R1 is 192. 168. 1. 2.

25. Given IPv6 address prefix 2001:db8::/48, what will be the last subnet that is created if the subnet prefix is changed to /52?


26. What is the purpose of deploying dual stack devices?

Dual stack allows companies to migrate to IPv6 over time.

27.Which two devices allow hosts on different VLANs to communicate with each other? (Choose two.)

1. router

2. Layer 3 switch

27. Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank.
There are collision domains in the topology.​ 12

28. Refer to the exhibit. A switch with a default configuration connects four hosts. The ARP table for host A is shown. What happens when host A wants to send an IP packet to host D?

Host A sends out a broadcast of FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. Every other host connected to the switch receives the broadcast and host D responds with its MAC address.

29. What is the most compressed representation of the IPv6 address 2001:0000:0000:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0001?

30.Which three statements are true about full-duplex operation on an Ethernet network? (Choose three.)

 1. A dedicated switch port is required for each node.
2. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
3. The host network card and the switch port must both be in full-duplex mode.

30. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is investigating a lag in network performance and issues the show interfaces fastethernet 0/0 command. Based on the output that is displayed, what two items should the administrator check next? (Choose two.)

1. duplex settings
2. cable lengths

31. What is the purpose of using SSH to connect to a router?  

It allows a secure remote connection to the router command line interface.

32.When creating an IPv6 static route, when must a next-hop IPv6 address and an exit interface both be specified?

when the next hop is a link-local address

33. Which series of commands will cause access list 15 to restrict Telnet access on a router?

R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config​-line)# access-class 15 in
34. Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a data packet to host B. What will be the addressing information of the data packet when it reaches host B?
Source af:3c:dc:4c:55:66
Destination a0:4c:5f:21:33:77

35. A network engineer is configuring PAT on a router and has issued the command:
ip nat source list 1 interface serial 0/1/0 overload
Which additional command is required to specify addresses from the network as the inside local addresses?

access-list 1 permit

36. Refer to the exhibit. How will R1 generate the interface ID portion of the IPv6 address on interface FastEthernet 0/0?

by using the interface MAC address with a 16-bit filler

37. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is reviewing port and VLAN assignments on switch S2 and notices that interfaces Gi0/1 and Gi0/2 are not included in the output. Why would the interfaces be missing from the output?

They are configured as trunk interfaces.

38. A network administrator has been allocated the IPv4 block of addresses for a LAN. Two devices on two different, but contiguous, subnets on the LAN have been assigned the addresses and, respectively. The administrator has to create a third subnet from the remaining address range. To optimize the use of this address space, the new subnet will follow on directly from the existing subnets. What is the first available host address in the next available subnet?​

39. Refer to the exhibit. Interfaces Fa0/2, Fa0/4, and Fa0/6 are connected to users on the data network of a switch named CiscoSwitch. Interface Fa0/24 is connected to a file server on the management network. All other ports are unused. Which security best practice did the administrator forget to configure?​​

Disable autonegotiation on interfaces that are not being utilized as a trunk.

40. Which combination of DTP modes will form a link to allow multiple VLANs?

dynamic auto-dynamic desirable

41. A network administrator has recently implemented OSPFv2 across the entire network topology. Which command can be implemented to prevent the forwarding of OSPF messages to Layer 2 switches and hosts on interface Fast Ethernet 0/1, while maintaining network connectivity?

 R1(config-router)# passive-interface FastEthernet 0/1

42. A network technician is configuring port security on a LAN switch interface. The security policy requires host MAC addresses to be learned dynamically, stored in the address table, and saved to the switch running configuration. Which command does the technician need to add to the following configuration to implement this policy?

Switch(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode access
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

43. Match the order of precedence to the process logic that an OSPFv3 network router goes through in choosing a router ID. (Not all options are used.)

A. priority 1
B. priority 2
C. priority 3
D. priority 4

1. The router displays a console message to configure the router ID manually. - D
2. The router uses the highest configured IPv4 address of an active interface. - C
3. The router chooses the highest IPv6 address that is configured on the router.
4. The router uses the highest configured IPv4 address of a loopback interface. – B
5. The router uses the explicitly configured router ID if any. - A

44. Refer to the exhibit. OSPFv2 has been configured on router R1, and the router-id command has not been manually configured. When the network administrator reboots router R1, what will be the value of the OSPF router ID?

45. A network administrator has enabled single-area OSPFv3 on a router via the ipv6 router ospf 100 command. Which command will enable this OSPFv3 process on an interface of that router?​

R1(config-if)# ipv6 ospf 100 area 0

46. What can a network administrator modify on a router to specify the location from which the Cisco IOS loads? (Choose two.)

1. the startup configuration file
2. the configuration register value

47. Which three statements characterize UDP? (Choose three.)

 1. UDP provides connectionless, fast transport of data at Layer 4.
2. UDP relies on application layer protocols for error detection.
3. UDP works well when an application does not need to guarantee delivery of data.

48. Fill in the blank.

A late collision occurs after bits of a frame have been transmitted. 512

49. Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)

 1. The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.
2. The destination IP address is
3. All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.

50. Which two issues might cause excessive runt and giant frames in an Ethernet network? (Choose two.)

 1. a malfunctioning NIC
2. excessive collisions

51.Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct based on the output as shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

 1. The output is the result of the show ip nat translations command.

2. The host with the address will respond to requests by using a source address of
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